No, it has not. The precedent for marriage as defined as a contract between two consenting adults has been set. The entire issue of polygamy is an entirely different and uncharted territory, and a rational society can make the distinction without crossing its eyes.
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timeasmymeasure
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Date: 2008-05-16 04:05 pm (UTC)No, it has not. The precedent for marriage as defined as a contract between two consenting adults has been set. The entire issue of polygamy is an entirely different and uncharted territory, and a rational society can make the distinction without crossing its eyes.